To what degree is marginalism dependent on price as the active force? How can marginal utility be realized without all goods having a market price? What happens when goods are difficult or impossible to price?
Marginalism just means that the specific, concrete good or thing as the object of choice is the object of people's action and therefore valuation. Marginalism does not require having a market price, but quantitative calculations of accounting magnitudes, like profits, losses, cost, revenue, do require market prices.
I don't know if I totally understand these theories but I think modern market anarchists would say that a "freed" (anti-capitalist) market does use prices, and further strips rent/interest/privilege to make those prices accurately reflect subjective cost of labor as well. A freed market would still need commons rules, democratic decisions, norms, hard constraints, which isn't a contradiction in the system. I've seen Carson synthesize marginalism and LTV, that marginal utility decides price in more short term and competition drives cost to labor over the long term, as under the distorting effects of capitalism, these two are further apart than they need be.
Representing the alphabetic orthography for Hello World is obviously impossible in a written script lacking letters, revealing the folly implicit in the exercise.
There’s a long history of attempts at artificial speech that take this approach, recreating mouth parts and vibrating air. They are all pretty silly, like this work, which fails to understand how writing isn’t just a derivative of speech.
Y’all need to learn about the history and development of spoken language and writing. Writing isn’t just a copy or derivation of writing. LLMs work because of the conceptual characteristics of writing (consider the distinctions between ideographic, logographic, alphabetical…). What a sloppy mess!
Read some Wittgenstein and Goodman, but especially Derrida who calls this logocentrism.
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